Thanks for clarifying. Is it fair to say that you disagree with the author on whether the biological differences exist (and if they do the size of their effect on representation), not with the logical merit of the argument (group aptitude and preference affect representation)?
I can understand that position and think we can call it a day as i don't feel qualified to argue the size of the effect. It could very well be just 1%, i.e. 49/51.
If not
> "raises into question the fundamental capability of every woman he works with"
> The author makes the claim that one sex's ineptitude in a modern role is, on average, rooted in biology. That's not supported by science.
This does not follow from your argument.
Your argument only supports that the author questions the ability of every women who fails to get a job in the field / that modern role.
If it is proven that biological differences do not significantly impact modern role preference and capability, you and the author agree that representation should be 50/50. He never specifies how much of an influence he believes biological differences to have, just that there could be some.
I also disagree with your assertion that the author questions any individual womens aptitude based on her gender. He is talking averages across the general population, not applicants after all.
> It seems clear to me that the manifesto author "raises into question the fundamental capability of every woman he works with".
Could you quote the part of the manifesto that says so / gave this impression.
I totally understand the offensiveness and stupidity of such a belief -I just fail to see how the author argues for it given that he explicitly states the opposite
> Many of these differences are small and there’s significant overlap between men and women, so you can’t say anything about an individual given these population level distributions.
As far as I can see the author is arguing average aptitudes in populations and consequent percentual representation of men and women not being 50/50. Not aptititudes of individuals. As the author also argues for actions that in their eyes increases the attractiveness of tech jobs to women they seem to think of the women that work with them as perfectly capable.
I appreciate any help in understanding this point of view. It just feels like we read different manifestos
I can understand that position and think we can call it a day as i don't feel qualified to argue the size of the effect. It could very well be just 1%, i.e. 49/51.
If not
> "raises into question the fundamental capability of every woman he works with"
> The author makes the claim that one sex's ineptitude in a modern role is, on average, rooted in biology. That's not supported by science.
This does not follow from your argument.
Your argument only supports that the author questions the ability of every women who fails to get a job in the field / that modern role.
If it is proven that biological differences do not significantly impact modern role preference and capability, you and the author agree that representation should be 50/50. He never specifies how much of an influence he believes biological differences to have, just that there could be some.
I also disagree with your assertion that the author questions any individual womens aptitude based on her gender. He is talking averages across the general population, not applicants after all.