def RiemannHypothesis : Prop :=
∀ (s : ℂ) (_ : riemannZeta s = 0) (_ : ¬∃ n : ℕ, s = -2 * (n + 1)) (_ : s ≠ 1), s.re = 1 / 2
If I construct a term of this type without going via one of the (fairly obvious) soundness holes or a compiler bug, it's very likely proved, no? No matter how inscrutable the proof is from a mathematical perspective. (Translating it into something mathematicians understand is a separate question, but that's not really what I'm asking.)