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oskaralund

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oskaralund
·11 maanden geleden·discuss
I'm not making the case that it is possible to make measurements with infinite precision. I'm making the case that the argument "It is not possible to make measurements with infinite precision, therefore we cannot tell if we live in a rational or a real world." is begging the question. The conclusion follows logically from the premise. Unless the argument is just "we can't currently distinguish between a rational and a real world", but that seems trivial.
oskaralund
·11 maanden geleden·discuss
The example was only to illustrate that measurement precision is independent of the time it takes to perform the measurement.
oskaralund
·11 maanden geleden·discuss
I don't think time and measurement precision are necessarily related in that way. You can measure weight with increased precision by using a more precise scale, without increasing the time it takes to do the measurement.
oskaralund
·11 maanden geleden·discuss
This argument feels like it's assuming the conclusion. If in principle it is only possible to measure quantities to finite precision, then it follows logically that we couldn't tell the difference between a rational and real universe. The question is, is the premise true here?
oskaralund
·11 maanden geleden·discuss
Saying that two sets have the same cardinality is equivalent to saying there is a bijection between them. I don't understand how the latter can be useful but not the former?