Its easy to criticize the Sackler settlement, but I have yet to hear anyone criticize the US Government that received nearly $4bln in taxes (profit) from the $10Bln their enterprise earned.
How come the US Govt's $4bln "take" is not considered ill-gotten gain, particularly given it was the US FDA (Woodcock, in her prior role at agency) that essentially sanctioned rampant opioid prescriptions?
How come the US Govt's $4bln "take" is not considered ill-gotten gain, particularly given it was the US FDA (Woodcock, in her prior role at agency) that essentially sanctioned rampant opioid prescriptions?