Is "white" really even a race? There's a lot of distinct people in Europe. Are Spaniards, Portugese, Italians "white" are Slavs "white"? Scottish or Irish? Germans? Where do we draw the line of distinction? Or are we just going off skin color?
If it's not evident, the conception and enforcement of private property writ large is established by governmental coercion. Thus monopolization really only occurs through that force, and is also the predominate competitor for monopolization.
You've got a silly proconception that mankind is endemically neurotic. Virtually every interaction you make throughout the day is self-organized, I'd conjecture the vast majority of it is done without direct, indirect, or conditioned coercion, and unsupervised. Multiply this by 7bn. That is to say that most all hierarchical authority isn't even preventative, and is almost exclusively reactionary, which further extends into reasoning that the "order" promised by the institutions is largely illusory outside of the directives offered, which could just as well be derived through any other system.
The main problem with wokeness is it creates a bunch of divisions in the population into smaller and smaller sections which are "incompatible." which means that concerted efforts between the bottom 70% are seriously diluted because very few people are interested in coordinating between these lines.
Not to mention it's a prolific and constant distraction from real topics of interest, and is at best superficial, and identity issues can be drummed up infinitely. But it generates user interaction, and inundates them, and dissolves community. These are all big wins for those at the top, whether they're aware of it or not. Personally I like to assume that it's automatic, user interaction whether sympathetic or indignant is sells, inundation is the nature of the medium, the dissolution of community is just an aside.
Conjecture with me for a moment, friend: if given fruit X yields 100% nutrient fruits, is then selected for volume, and in the increase of size, the proportion of nutrients declines it follows, to me, that the increased volume is creating a diluting effect. To me it seems as if any increase of proportion in volume had ought to scale right alongside the proportion of nutrient values, unless that compromises the organism. This is the framework I'll be working from.
Several factors come immediately to mind, is the plant reaching a threshold wherein micronutrients are at "unity" and so uptake is reduced and thus reaches a plateau (or saturation), and so distribution into fruit is proportionally diminished as volume increases? Is there some natural law that is prohibitive, something like the square-cube law? Or are the plants locally depleting the nutrients, and then relying on natural diffusion? Is there a "long-range dependency" that is opaque? All else failing, I would suggest that it's highly probable that the nutrient disparities that are evident in these studies could reflect that maintenance of the proportion of nutrients to that of volume might leave the plants fated to death, and so our selection process is predetermined to either volume or nutrient content. Which begs the question, at what intersection do we find the highest degree of efficacy in selecting foodstuffs?
Given a plant that could expand both volume and nutrient proportionally, what would the result be? I'd conjecture rapid depletion of locally available nutrients, up to the point where diffusion and natural deposition becomes an ineffectual mode of conveyance and demands manual upkeep else the organism would be given to death.
Perhaps I'm presumptuous, I don't mind being so, I'll have to ask you to forgive me for my ignorance. I only ask for your participation in this discussion as it seems you're privileged to have a mind much more discerning and honed in this craft than mine own.
So there are at least 3 studies performed by different teams in this article that indicates you're incorrect in your assertions as applied in practice.
It can happen on straightrail on an incline, too. It's hard to assess precisely what's happening in the locomotive, but under traction I believe the running gear will toe out, and align based on the path of least resistance. I believe this leads to the flange pressing, with immense force, against the rail. You also get a lot of wheel slip in this condition.
I surmised this running 2 motors up a 3%(?) grade with 20k ton gross at 10mph. It's about the only explanation I could come up with is that the running gear was twisting under the gravity and the energy being put down to work against it. It might also just be a stringline sort of effect dragging the motors to one side of the track and pressing the flange. Maybe one of the rail engineers will come holler at me for my poor trainhandling skills.